Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 33 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 33 with Answer

Staff nurse exam Modal Paper is Useful for nursing students who prepare for staff nurse Recruitment exam
like AIIMS,JIPMER,PGIMER,GMCH,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,SCTIMST,KPSC,RPSC,HPSSSB,HSSC,IGNOU ESIC and All other Staff nurse exam .you can download this question paper in pdf format link given at the end of paper.

Model Paper PDF will Help You to Crack Nursing Officer Examination. These Model Papers Questions are Asked in Various Nursing Officer Exam Like AIIMS, PGIMER, JIPMER, DSSSB, BHU, RUHS, RPSC, AMU, ESIC, RRB, and Other Exam. 

We Make Model Questions Paper From Previous Asked Questions in Various Staff Nurse Exam.

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 33 with Answer-

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           [For Nursing Officer Exam Preparations ]

             [Total Questions  - 50 Questions with Answers]

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 33 with Answer-

Q. 01 A patient who wishes to leave the hospital prior to the completion of treatment:
A. May not do so under any circumstances.
B. Must be allowed to do so.
C. May do so only if the doctor agrees.
D. Must sign a release form before he/she leaves.

Q. 02 Medical treatment of coronary artery disease includes which of the following
A. Oral medication administration
B. Coronary artery bypass surgery
C. Cardiac catheterization
D. Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty

Q. 03 Pulse oximetry is used during endoscopic procedures to:-
A. Monitor the depth of sedation.
B. Measure carbon dioxide retention levels.
C. Reduce the required number of nursing staff.
D. Determine arterial blood oxygen saturation.

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Q. 04 The presence of Helicobacter pylori predisposes patients to:
A. Esophageal ulceration.
B. Duodenal ulceration.
C. Gastric ulceration.
D. Mouth ulceration.

Q. 05 Smooth muscle relaxants administered during an endoscopic retrograde
A. Increase prothrombin time.
B. Induce duodenal Atonia
C. Decrease bile flow.
D. Induce bradycardia.

Q. 06 Specimens are more easily obtained from flat esophageal lesions using forceps
with which feature-
A. Rat-toothed cups.
B. Alligator jaws.
C. Magnetic tips.
D. Cups with a central spike.

Q. 07 Which of the following symptoms usually signifies rapid expansion and
impending rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A. Lower back pain
B. Absent pedal pulses
C. Angina
D. Abdominal pain

Q. 08 To maximize iron absorption, patients should be advised to take iron
A. Before meals
B. At bedtime
C. After meals
D. With meals

Q. 09 Malabsorption in Coeliac Disease is due to:
A. Atrophy and reduced enzyme activity in small bowel villi.
B. Increased intestinal motility and diarrhea.
C. Inflammation of the large bowel and increased motility.
D. Pyloric inflammation and gastric stasis.

Q. 10 What position should the nurse place the head of the bed in to obtain the most
accurate reading of jugular vein distention?
A. High-fowler's
B. Raised 30 degrees
C. Raised 10 degrees
D. Supine position

Q. 11 The state of complete disorganization and confusion which lead to
loss of identity and direction:
A. Chaos
B. Bargaining
C. Equilibrium
D. Resistance
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Q. 12 Which of the following risk factors for coronary artery disease cannot be
A. Cigarette smoking
B. Heredity

Q. 13 Which of the following means translating the message into verbal
and non-verbal symbols to communicate the receiver:
A. Feedback
B. Decoding
C. Channel
D. Encoding

Q. 14 The condition, which lacks complete information on action alternatives:-
A. Emergency
B. Uncertainty condition
C. Risk condition
D. Crisis condition

Q. 15 The manager gives incentive for one employee on their extra effort
on new project, the power which used in this situation is:
A. Coercive
B. Expert
C. Legitimate
D. Reward

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Q. 16 The mistakes done by the head nurse done during performance appraisal all the
following except:
A. Paired comparison
B. Horns effect
C. Central tendency error
D. Hollow effect

Q. 17 All of the following is Personnel employment policies except
A. Hiring new employees
B. Termination of present employees
C. Promotion or reward of the present employees
D. Health care programs

Q. 18 Collaboration in providing care to a group of patients under the
direction of a professional nurse is:
A. Team method
B. Primary method
C. Case method
D. Group Method

Q. 19 Which of the following documentation used by the head nurse to
communicate information about patient has sudden hemorrhage to
another head nurse in the next shift?
A. Assignment record
B. Shift report
C. Kardex record
D. Incident report

Q. 20 Which of the following involves all the assessment methods that
occur after the patient has been Discharged:
A. Concurrent evaluation.
B. Retrospective evaluation.
C. Quality assurance.
D. Auditing.

Q. 21 A patient Named Deepa George with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the
second post-operative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea
and isn't able to eat solid foods. The nurse Reena enters the room to find the patient
confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the
patient's symptoms?
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis.
B. Hypoglycemia.
C. Hyperglycemia.
D. None of the Above

Q. 22 Atherosclerosis impedes coronary blood flow by which of the following
A. Plaques obstruct the vein
B. Hardened vessels dilate to allow the blood to flow through
C. Blood clots form outside the vessel wall
D. Plaques obstruct the artery

Q. 23 Nurse Mr. Kavya caring for several patients on the cardiac unit is told that one
is scheduled for implantation of an automatic internal cardioverter-defibrillator.
Which of the following patients is most likely to have this procedure?
A. A patient with a history of ventricular tachycardia and syncopal episodes.
B. A post-operative coronary bypass patient, recovering on schedule.
C. A patient admitted for myocardial infarction without cardiac muscle damage.
D. A patient with a history of atrial tachycardia and fatigue.
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Q. 24 Children learn through modeling or imitation. Such a suggestion would be best
associated with-
A. Skinner
B. Pavlov
C. Bandura
D. Erikson

Q. 25 Which list below explains Maslow's hierarchy of human needs?
A. Justice, security, esteem, safety
B. Physiological, safety, social, esteem, self-actualization
C. Safety, esteem, security, social
D. None of these

Q. 26 If one believes a child will "grow out of it", referring to a behavior or a stage,
this is best related to which theory?
A. Maturational
B. Psychosocial
C. Sensitive
D. Constructivist

Q. 27 Sigmund Freud saw the self as having three parts. The first is-
A. The id.
B. The ego.
C. The superego.
D. The latency period

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Q. 28 Gender differences are influenced by
A. Culture.
B. Environment.
C. Nature and nurture.
D. All of these

Q. 29 Maturational theory suggests-
A. Children are influenced greatly by their environment.
B. Children grow and change based upon their own genetic makeup.
C. Children are born as blank slates.
D. All of these

Q. 30 Sigmund Freud is known for
A. Stages of cognitive development.
B. The theory of psychosexual development.
C. Studying the behavior of monkeys.
D. None of these

Q. 31 Piaget's three mechanisms for learning include-
A. Homologous, hierarchical, decalage.
B. Adaptation, assimilation, and accommodation.
C. Sensorimotor, preoperational, and concrete operations.
D. Reinforcers, stimulus, and response.

Q. 32 Behavioral theorists include
A. Pavlov, Skinner, and Watson.
B. Piaget, Vygotsky, and Freud.
C. Bandura, Pavlov, and Piaget.
D. None of these

Q. 33 Which of the following terms are related to Lev Vygotsky?
A. Sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete, and formal operations
B. Zone of proximal development
C. Scaffolding
D. Both B and C

Q. 34 Early sign of DIC
B. Vascular obstruction
C. Clot formation
D. Hematuria

Q. 35 Which is the following largest and most muscular chamber of heart
A. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
C. Left ventricle
D. Left atrium

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Q. 36 Uterine contractions monitored by .............?
A. Friedman's curve
B. Tonometer
C. Tocodynamometer
D. Fetoscope

Q. 37 Which of the following drug shows drug holiday
A. Ecospirin
B. Streptokinase
C. Morphine
D. Digoxin

Q. 38 The Ward nurse administering mannitol and the doctor advised slowly to be
given. Why? The risk for ---?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Cerebral embolism
C. Hypertension
D. Fluid overload

Q. 39 The nurse is collecting data on a client before surgery. Which statement by the
client would alert the nurse to the presence of risk factors for postoperative
A. "I haven't been able to eat anything solid for the past 2 days."
B. "I've never had surgery before."
C. "I had an operation 2 years ago, and I don't want to have another one."
D. "I've cut my smoking down from two packs to one pack per day."
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Q. 40 The physician prescribes morphine 4 mg I.V. every 2 hours as needed for pain.
The nurse should be on the alert for which adverse reaction to morphine?
A. Tachycardia
B. Hypertension
C. Neutropenia
D. Respiratory depression

Q. 41 Highest degree of abortion seen among-
A. Husband with A blood group and wife with O group
B. Husband with O blood group and wife with A group
C. Husband with A blood group and wife with B group
D. Husband with AB blood group and wife with O group

Q. 42 Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of:
A. Iron
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Digoxin
D. Beta blockers

Q. 43 The nurse is preparing to teach a client how to use crutches. Before initiating
the lesson, the nurse performs an assessment on the client. The priority nursing
assessment should include which focus?
A. The client's feelings about the restricted mobility
B. The client's fear related to the use of the crutches
C. The client's muscle strength and previous activity level
D. The client's understanding of the need for increased mobility

Q. 44 Most specific enzyme for MI?
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Q. 45 The nurse has developed a plan of care for a client diagnosed with anorexia
nervosa. Which client problem should the nurse select as the priority in the plan of
A. Malnutrition
B. Inability to cope
C. Concern about body appearance
D. Lack of knowledge about nutrition

Q. 46 What is the most appropriate method to use when drawing blood from a child
with hemophilia?
A. Use finger punctures for lab draws.
B. Be prepared to administer platelets for prolonged bleeding.
C. Apply heat to the extremity before venipunctures.
D. Schedule all labs to be drawn at one time.

Q. 47 Which hormone is responsible for amenorrhea after delivery or in postpartum
period..(in proper lactating women)..??
A. Oxytocin
B. Prolactin

Q. 48 Why should an infant be quiet and seated upright when the nurse checks his
A. The mother will have less trouble holding a quiet, upright infant.
B. Lying down can cause the fontanels to recede, making assessment more difficult.
C. The infant can breathe more easily when sitting up.
D. Lying down and crying can cause the fontanels to bulge.

Q. 49 Which trait is the most important for ensuring that a nurse-manager is effective?
A. Communication skills
B. Clinical abilities
C. Health care experience
D. Time management skills

Q. 50 Which of the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with
renal calculi?
A. Risk for infection
B. Functional urinary incontinence
C. Ineffective tissue perfusion
D. Decreased cardiac output

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