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📓BCCL STAFF NURSE RECRUITMENT EXAM 2015 QUESTIONS PAPER :-
📓BCCL STAFF NURSE RECRUITMENT EXAM 2015 QUESTIONS PAPER :-
01.To provide opportunities for education to the child or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years is;-
(1). Fundamental Right under Indian Constitution
(2). Fundamental Duty under Indian Constitution
(3). Directive Principles of state Policy Under Indian Constitution
(4). Legal Right under Indian Constitution
01.To provide opportunities for education to the child or as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years is;-
(1). Fundamental Right under Indian Constitution
(2). Fundamental Duty under Indian Constitution
(3). Directive Principles of state Policy Under Indian Constitution
02. 2015, ICC Cricket World Cup was hosted by;-
(1). Australia
(2).New – Zealand
(3). West Indies
(4). Both 01 & 02
03. PV Sindhu is related to which sport:-
(1). Cricket
(2). Badminton
(3). Tennis
(4). Billiards
04. Which of the following Muslim rulers remained in the captivity of his son-
(1). Akbar
(2). Aurangzeb
(3). Shahjahan
(4). Jahangir
05. River Luni drains into:-
(1). Ganga Delta
(2). Kerala Coast
(3). Rann Of Kutch
(4). Godavari Delta
02. 2015, ICC Cricket World Cup was hosted by;-
(1). Australia
(2).New – Zealand
(3). West Indies
(4). Both 01 & 02
03. PV Sindhu is related to which sport:-
(1). Cricket
(2). Badminton
(3). Tennis
(4). Billiards
04. Which of the following Muslim rulers remained in the captivity of his son-
(1). Akbar
(2). Aurangzeb
(3). Shahjahan
(4). Jahangir
05. River Luni drains into:-
(1). Ganga Delta
(2). Kerala Coast
(3). Rann Of Kutch
06. Who is the present governor of the Bank of India-
06. Who is the present governor of the Bank of India-
(1). Raghuram Rajan
(2). Vima jalan
(3). Y. V. Reddy
(4). None of these
(2). Vima jalan
(3). Y. V. Reddy
(4). None of these
07. Who was the political Guru of Mahatma Gandhi:-
(1) Motilal Nehru
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) Madan Mohan Malviya
(4) Dada Bhai Naoroji
08. Which one of the largest bone in human body-
(1) Femur
(2) Humerus
(3) Tibia
(4 ) Radius
09. Which one of the following is the highest in rank -
(1) Lieutenant General
(2) Air Marshal
(3) Commodore
(4) Admiral
10. A cyclist while turning around a curved road leans inwards. By doing so which force he is providing himself which enables to take a turn :-
(1) Centrifugual Force
(2) Centripetal force
(3) Angular Velocity
(4) None of these
11. Full Moon occurs -
(1) When Earth come between Sun and the Moon
(2) When Moon comes between Earth and the Sun
(3) When Sun comes between Moon and the Earth
(4) None of the above is correct
12. The liquid drops or gas bubbles are always spherical due to ;-
(1) Volume tension
(2) Surface tension
(3) Gravitational force
(4) Magnetic force
13. The branch of biology that deals with the study of fungi is called -
(1) Algology
(2) Phycology
(3) Mycology
(4) Microbiology
07. Who was the political Guru of Mahatma Gandhi:-
(1) Motilal Nehru
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) Madan Mohan Malviya
(4) Dada Bhai Naoroji
08. Which one of the largest bone in human body-
(1) Femur
(2) Humerus
(3) Tibia
(4 ) Radius
09. Which one of the following is the highest in rank -
(1) Lieutenant General
(2) Air Marshal
(3) Commodore
(4) Admiral
10. A cyclist while turning around a curved road leans inwards. By doing so which force he is providing himself which enables to take a turn :-
(1) Centrifugual Force
(2) Centripetal force
(3) Angular Velocity
(4) None of these
11. Full Moon occurs -
(1) When Earth come between Sun and the Moon
(2) When Moon comes between Earth and the Sun
(3) When Sun comes between Moon and the Earth
(4) None of the above is correct
12. The liquid drops or gas bubbles are always spherical due to ;-
(1) Volume tension
(2) Surface tension
(3) Gravitational force
(4) Magnetic force
13. The branch of biology that deals with the study of fungi is called -
(3) Mycology
(4) Microbiology
14. The Higgs-boson particle which was discovered by scientists, is also known as -
(1) Quantum Particle
(2) God Particle
(3) Atomic Particle
(4) High mass particle
15. The constitution of India was adopted on -
(1) 26th November, 1949
(2) 26th January, 1950
(3) 15th August, 1947
(4) 26th January, 1951
16.The book titled ‘Forge Your Future’ has been authored by -
(1) Mr. Pranab Mukerjee
(2) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul kalam
(3) Mr. Narendra Modi
(4) Dr. Manmohan Singh
14. The Higgs-boson particle which was discovered by scientists, is also known as -
(1) Quantum Particle
(2) God Particle
(3) Atomic Particle
(4) High mass particle
15. The constitution of India was adopted on -
(1) 26th November, 1949
(2) 26th January, 1950
(3) 15th August, 1947
(4) 26th January, 1951
16.The book titled ‘Forge Your Future’ has been authored by -
(1) Mr. Pranab Mukerjee
(2) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul kalam
(3) Mr. Narendra Modi
(4) Dr. Manmohan Singh
17. Rovers cup is associated with -
(1) Badminton
(2) Cricket
(3) Hockey
(4) Football
18. Who is the cabinet minister of Railways in 16th Lok sabha :-
(1) Mr. Arun Jaitley
(2) Mr. Manoj Sinha
(3) Mr. Suresh Prabhu
(4) None of these
19. The Governor of a state is appointed by -
(1) Chief Minister of the state
(2) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(3) President of India
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
20. Hirakud dam has been built on the river :-
(1) Ganga
(2) Mahanadi
(3) Brahmaputra
(4) Kaveri
21. A nurse assess the patients respiratory status.
17. Rovers cup is associated with -
(1) Badminton
(2) Cricket
(3) Hockey
(4) Football
18. Who is the cabinet minister of Railways in 16th Lok sabha :-
(1) Mr. Arun Jaitley
(2) Mr. Manoj Sinha
(3) Mr. Suresh Prabhu
(4) None of these
19. The Governor of a state is appointed by -
(1) Chief Minister of the state
(2) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(3) President of India
(4) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
20. Hirakud dam has been built on the river :-
(1) Ganga
(2) Mahanadi
(3) Brahmaputra
(4) Kaveri
21. A nurse assess the patients respiratory status.
Which of the following symptoms be an early indicator of hypoxia an unconscious patient -
(1) Cyanosis
(2) Decreased respiration
(3) Restlessness
(4) Hypotension
22. The commonest cause of death in women with cancer cervix is -
(1) Septicemia
(2) Renal failure
(3) Hemorrhage
(4) Cachexia
23. Which of the sign and symptoms would be an early indication that the patients serum potassium level is below usual -
(1) Sticky mucous membrane
(2) Diarrhea
(3) Muscle weakness in the legs
(4) Tingling in the fingers
24. The nurse evaluates the adequacy of the neonates oxygen by monitoring -
(1) Cynanosis of hand and feet
(2) Pulse rate continuously
(3) Arterial blood gas
(4) The percentage of oxygen received
25. A patient receiving aminoglycosides antibiotics need to undergo which investigation positively :-
(1) Serum sodium
(2) Serum potassium
(3) Red blood cell count
(4) Serum creatinine
26.The ‘Rule of Nine’ in patients with burns helps to assess :-
Which of the following symptoms be an early indicator of hypoxia an unconscious patient -
(1) Cyanosis
(2) Decreased respiration
(3) Restlessness
(4) Hypotension
22. The commonest cause of death in women with cancer cervix is -
(1) Septicemia
(2) Renal failure
(3) Hemorrhage
(4) Cachexia
23. Which of the sign and symptoms would be an early indication that the patients serum potassium level is below usual -
(1) Sticky mucous membrane
(2) Diarrhea
(3) Muscle weakness in the legs
(4) Tingling in the fingers
24. The nurse evaluates the adequacy of the neonates oxygen by monitoring -
(1) Cynanosis of hand and feet
(2) Pulse rate continuously
(3) Arterial blood gas
(4) The percentage of oxygen received
25. A patient receiving aminoglycosides antibiotics need to undergo which investigation positively :-
(1) Serum sodium
(2) Serum potassium
(3) Red blood cell count
(4) Serum creatinine
(1) The amount of body surface burned
(2) Rehabilitation needs
(3) Ventilatory assistance needs
(4) Types of intravenous infusion required
27. A patient is suspected to have hepatitis, which diagnostic test will confirm the diagnosis :-
(1) Elevated haemoglobin level
(2) Elevated serum bilrubin level
(3) Elevated blood urea nitrogen level
(4) Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
28. Catgut is made from intestine of -
(1) Domestic cat
(2) Wild cat
(3) Sheep
(4) Horse
29. A nurse perform the assessment of patient posted for cesarean section delivery. Which assessment would indicate the need to contact the doctor;-
(1) Hemoglobin of 11gm
(2) Fetal heart rate 180 beats/min
(3) Maternal pulse of 84 beats/min
(4) White blood cells of 12.000/mm3
30. Fumigation with formalin vapor is commonly used to sterilize and disinfect-
(1) Operation room
(2) Scrubbing room
(3) Nursing room
(4) Sterilization room
31. An autoclave is used for-
(1) Dry heat sterilization
(2) Moist heat sterilization
(3) Chemical sterilization
(4) Gaseous sterilization
32. Which of following suture materials can be autoclaved for sterilization :-
(1) Silk & Linen
(2) Catgut & Polyglactin
(3) PDS & Polyster
(4) Polyglycolic acid & Collagen
33. For an operation OT nurse should prepare :-
(1) Dressing trolley
(2) Emergency trolley
(3) Mayo trolley
(4) Washing trolley
34. Lateral position is used for operations on -
(1) Kidney
(2) Gall bladder
(3) Appendix
(4) All of these
35. Lithotomy position is used for operations on -
(1) Vagina
(2) Perineum
(3) Anal canal
(4) All of these
36. Knee elbow position is used for _
(1) Lumbar laminectomy
(2) Hamerroidectomy
(3) Hystrectomy
(4) Cholecystectomy
37. Catgut is made from-
(1) Gut of cat
(2) Gut of sheep
(3) Gut of horse
(4) Gut of camel
38. Plannenstiel incision is used for-
(1) Caesarean section
(2) Cholecystectomy (KEYS)
(3)Inguinal Herniorraphy
(4) Gastrectomy
39. Green Armytage forceps is used to arrest bleeding in-
(1) Hystrectomy
(2) Ovariotomy
(3) Cesarean section
(4) Myomectomy
27. A patient is suspected to have hepatitis, which diagnostic test will confirm the diagnosis :-
(1) Elevated haemoglobin level
(2) Elevated serum bilrubin level
(3) Elevated blood urea nitrogen level
(4) Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
28. Catgut is made from intestine of -
(1) Domestic cat
(2) Wild cat
(3) Sheep
(4) Horse
29. A nurse perform the assessment of patient posted for cesarean section delivery. Which assessment would indicate the need to contact the doctor;-
(1) Hemoglobin of 11gm
(2) Fetal heart rate 180 beats/min
(3) Maternal pulse of 84 beats/min
(4) White blood cells of 12.000/mm3
30. Fumigation with formalin vapor is commonly used to sterilize and disinfect-
(1) Operation room
(2) Scrubbing room
(3) Nursing room
(4) Sterilization room
31. An autoclave is used for-
(1) Dry heat sterilization
(2) Moist heat sterilization
(3) Chemical sterilization
(4) Gaseous sterilization
32. Which of following suture materials can be autoclaved for sterilization :-
(1) Silk & Linen
(2) Catgut & Polyglactin
(3) PDS & Polyster
(4) Polyglycolic acid & Collagen
33. For an operation OT nurse should prepare :-
(1) Dressing trolley
(2) Emergency trolley
(3) Mayo trolley
(4) Washing trolley
34. Lateral position is used for operations on -
(1) Kidney
(2) Gall bladder
(3) Appendix
(4) All of these
35. Lithotomy position is used for operations on -
(1) Vagina
(2) Perineum
(3) Anal canal
(4) All of these
36. Knee elbow position is used for _
(1) Lumbar laminectomy
(2) Hamerroidectomy
(3) Hystrectomy
(4) Cholecystectomy
37. Catgut is made from-
(1) Gut of cat
(2) Gut of sheep
(3) Gut of horse
(4) Gut of camel
38. Plannenstiel incision is used for-
(1) Caesarean section
(2) Cholecystectomy (KEYS)
(3)Inguinal Herniorraphy
(4) Gastrectomy
39. Green Armytage forceps is used to arrest bleeding in-
(1) Hystrectomy
(2) Ovariotomy
(3) Cesarean section
(4) Myomectomy
40. Proctoscope is used to see :-
(1) Anal canal
(2) Sigmoid colon
(3) Vagina
(4) Oral cavity
41. Lead rubber aprons are used in OT when following equipment is used :-
(1) Electric Cautery
(2) Ventilator
(3) Image intensifier
(4) Pulse oxymeter
42. Which forceps are non traumatic -
(1) Allis forceps
(2) Kocher’s forceps
(3) Tooth thumb forceps
(4) Babcock’s forceps
43. Endotrachial intubation is used in -
(1) General anesthesia
(2) Spinal anesthesia
(3) Reginal anesthesia
(4) Local anesthesia
44. Tuohy’s needle is used for -
(1) Spinal anesthesia
(2) Epidural anesthesia
(3) Local anesthesia
(4) Nerve block
45. Which of following is muscle relaxant -
(1) Thiopentone
(2) Ketamine
(3) Epontol
(4) Pancuronium bromide
46. Drug used in infiltrating anesthesia -
(1) 2% Lignocaine
(2) 5% Lignocaine
(3) 4% Lignocaine
(4) None of these
47. Most important drug to control anaphylactic shock is -
(1) Hydrocortisone
(2) Dopamine
(3) Dexamethasone
(4) Adrenaline
48. Vaginal hysterectomy is done for :-
(1) Uterus prolapsed
(2) Fibroid uterus
(3) Cervical erosion
(4) Endometrial carcinoma
49. Defribrillator is used in situation of :-
(1) Cardiac arrest
(2) Respiratory arrest
(3) Shock
(4) Peritonitis
50. Cystolithotomy means removal of stones from :-
(1) Bladder
(2) Gallbladder
(3) Kidney
(4) Ureter
51. Anesthesia machine is used in general anesthesia for :-
(1) Pumping oxygen into lung
(2) Removing exhaled gases from lung
(3) Pumping anesthetic gases into lung
(4) All of these
52. During cutting the tissue, bleeding points are caught with the help of :-
(1) Artery forceps
(2) Allis’ forceps
(3) Lane’s forceps
(4) Babcock’s forceps
53. Name the operation in which part of large intestine is exteriorized and an opening is made in it :-
(1) Ileostomy
(2) Jejunostomy
(3) Caecostomy
(4) Colostomy
54. The nurse understands that hemiplegia involves :-
(1) Paresis of both lower extremities
(2) Paralysis of one side of the body
(3) Paralysis of both lower extremities
(4) Paresis of upper and lower extremities
55. A client drank 7 ½ oz of orange juice, 6 oz of tea and 8 oz of milk. The calculated intake will be :-
(1) 515 ml
(2) 585 ml
(3) 625 ml
(4) 645 ml
56. The major role in maintaining fluid balance in the body is performed by ;-
(1) Liver
(2) Heart
(3) Lungs
(4) kidneys
57. Ketone bodies appear in the blood and urine when fats are being oxidized in great amounts. The condition is associated with -
(1) Starvation
(2) Bone healing
(3) Alcoholism
(4) Positive nitrogen balance
58. Which is the master gland :-
(1) Pineal
(2) Pitutary
(3) Pancreas
(4) Salivary
59. Cretinism is due to deficiency of -
(1) Thyroxine
(2) Estrogen
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Renin
60. A test that should be included in the yearly physical examination of men during the late middle and older adult years is :-
(1) PSA
(2) ELISA
(3) Western blot
(4) Serum Triglycerides
61. Glucocorticoids and mineral corticoids are secreted by -
(1) Gonads
(2) Adreanl glands
(3) Pancreas
(4) Anterior Pitutary
62. Fasting blood sugar is done to defect -
(1) Amount of insulin in blood
(2) Amount of glucose in blood
(3) Course of diabetes
(4) Treatment of diabetes
40. Proctoscope is used to see :-
(1) Anal canal
(2) Sigmoid colon
(3) Vagina
(4) Oral cavity
41. Lead rubber aprons are used in OT when following equipment is used :-
(1) Electric Cautery
(2) Ventilator
(3) Image intensifier
(4) Pulse oxymeter
42. Which forceps are non traumatic -
(1) Allis forceps
(2) Kocher’s forceps
(3) Tooth thumb forceps
(4) Babcock’s forceps
43. Endotrachial intubation is used in -
(1) General anesthesia
(2) Spinal anesthesia
(3) Reginal anesthesia
(4) Local anesthesia
44. Tuohy’s needle is used for -
(1) Spinal anesthesia
(2) Epidural anesthesia
(3) Local anesthesia
(4) Nerve block
45. Which of following is muscle relaxant -
(1) Thiopentone
(2) Ketamine
(3) Epontol
(4) Pancuronium bromide
46. Drug used in infiltrating anesthesia -
(1) 2% Lignocaine
(2) 5% Lignocaine
(3) 4% Lignocaine
(4) None of these
47. Most important drug to control anaphylactic shock is -
(1) Hydrocortisone
(2) Dopamine
(3) Dexamethasone
(4) Adrenaline
48. Vaginal hysterectomy is done for :-
(1) Uterus prolapsed
(2) Fibroid uterus
(3) Cervical erosion
(4) Endometrial carcinoma
49. Defribrillator is used in situation of :-
(1) Cardiac arrest
(2) Respiratory arrest
(3) Shock
(4) Peritonitis
50. Cystolithotomy means removal of stones from :-
(1) Bladder
(2) Gallbladder
(3) Kidney
(4) Ureter
51. Anesthesia machine is used in general anesthesia for :-
(1) Pumping oxygen into lung
(2) Removing exhaled gases from lung
(3) Pumping anesthetic gases into lung
(4) All of these
52. During cutting the tissue, bleeding points are caught with the help of :-
(1) Artery forceps
(2) Allis’ forceps
(3) Lane’s forceps
(4) Babcock’s forceps
53. Name the operation in which part of large intestine is exteriorized and an opening is made in it :-
(1) Ileostomy
(2) Jejunostomy
(3) Caecostomy
(4) Colostomy
54. The nurse understands that hemiplegia involves :-
(1) Paresis of both lower extremities
(2) Paralysis of one side of the body
(3) Paralysis of both lower extremities
(4) Paresis of upper and lower extremities
55. A client drank 7 ½ oz of orange juice, 6 oz of tea and 8 oz of milk. The calculated intake will be :-
(1) 515 ml
(2) 585 ml
(3) 625 ml
(4) 645 ml
56. The major role in maintaining fluid balance in the body is performed by ;-
(1) Liver
(2) Heart
(3) Lungs
(4) kidneys
57. Ketone bodies appear in the blood and urine when fats are being oxidized in great amounts. The condition is associated with -
(1) Starvation
(2) Bone healing
(3) Alcoholism
(4) Positive nitrogen balance
58. Which is the master gland :-
(1) Pineal
(2) Pitutary
(3) Pancreas
(4) Salivary
59. Cretinism is due to deficiency of -
(1) Thyroxine
(2) Estrogen
(3) Epinephrine
(4) Renin
60. A test that should be included in the yearly physical examination of men during the late middle and older adult years is :-
(1) PSA
(2) ELISA
(3) Western blot
(4) Serum Triglycerides
61. Glucocorticoids and mineral corticoids are secreted by -
(1) Gonads
(2) Adreanl glands
(3) Pancreas
(4) Anterior Pitutary
62. Fasting blood sugar is done to defect -
(1) Amount of insulin in blood
(2) Amount of glucose in blood
(3) Course of diabetes
(4) Treatment of diabetes
63. The endotracheal tube is put into the -
(1) Oesophagus
(2) Stomach
(3) Trachea
(4) Nasal cavity
64. Dose of oral vitamin A supplement recommended for children is -
(1) 1,000 I U
(2) 2,000 I U
(3) 10,000 I U
(4) 1,10,000 I U
65. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of -
(1) Thiamine
(2) Niacin
(3) Pyridoxine
(4) Riboflavin
66. Which portion of the heart receives oxygenated blood -
(1) Left auricle
(2) Right auricle
(3) Left ventricle
(4) Right Ventricle
67. B.C.G vaccine is given to protect the child against -
(1) Diphtheria
(2) Tetanus
(3) Typhoid
(4) Tuberculosis
68. Excessive albuminuria is associated with -
(1) Dehydration
(2) Bruising
(3) Infection
(4) Oedema
69. To avoid an error while measuring blood pressure, the nurse should -
(1) Use a narrow cuff
(2) Stand close to the manometer
(3) Elevate the client’s arm on a pillow
(4) Read at eye level
70. In case of ventricular fibrillation, a nurse must prepare for the first step of treatment -
(1) Intravenous infusion
(2) Continuous cardiac monitoring
(3) Oxygen administration
(4) Cardiopulmonray resuscitation and defibrillation
71. When it is discovered that the patient has no carotid pulse or respirations, the nurse :
(1) Clears the airway
(2) Gives four full lung inflations
(3) Compresses lower sternum 15 times
(4) Checks for radial pulse
72. For mother receiving magnesium sulphate for symptoms of hypomagniesimia an important sign for the nurse to note first is -
(1) Cool skin temperature
(2) Rapid pulse rate
(3) Tingling in the toes
(4) Decreased deep tendon reflex
63. The endotracheal tube is put into the -
(1) Oesophagus
(2) Stomach
(3) Trachea
(4) Nasal cavity
64. Dose of oral vitamin A supplement recommended for children is -
(1) 1,000 I U
(2) 2,000 I U
(3) 10,000 I U
(4) 1,10,000 I U
65. Pellagra is caused due to the deficiency of -
(1) Thiamine
(2) Niacin
(3) Pyridoxine
(4) Riboflavin
66. Which portion of the heart receives oxygenated blood -
(1) Left auricle
(2) Right auricle
(3) Left ventricle
(4) Right Ventricle
67. B.C.G vaccine is given to protect the child against -
(1) Diphtheria
(2) Tetanus
(3) Typhoid
(4) Tuberculosis
68. Excessive albuminuria is associated with -
(1) Dehydration
(2) Bruising
(3) Infection
(4) Oedema
69. To avoid an error while measuring blood pressure, the nurse should -
(1) Use a narrow cuff
(2) Stand close to the manometer
(3) Elevate the client’s arm on a pillow
(4) Read at eye level
70. In case of ventricular fibrillation, a nurse must prepare for the first step of treatment -
(1) Intravenous infusion
(2) Continuous cardiac monitoring
(3) Oxygen administration
(4) Cardiopulmonray resuscitation and defibrillation
71. When it is discovered that the patient has no carotid pulse or respirations, the nurse :
(1) Clears the airway
(2) Gives four full lung inflations
(3) Compresses lower sternum 15 times
(4) Checks for radial pulse
72. For mother receiving magnesium sulphate for symptoms of hypomagniesimia an important sign for the nurse to note first is -
(1) Cool skin temperature
(2) Rapid pulse rate
(3) Tingling in the toes
(4) Decreased deep tendon reflex
73. The mother’s blood pressure climbs to 170/100 mmHg. Which of the following symptoms would suggest to the nurse that the patient may be about to convulse -
(1) Increased fetal movements
(2) Decreased temperature
(3) Epigastric pain
(4) Urine Outpur of 40 ml/hour
74. The mother is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. The nurse tells the client that the usual treatment for partial placenta prevail is -
(1) Bed rest
(2) Adminstration of platelets
(3) Immediate caesarean section delivery
(4) Induction of labour with oxytocin
75. Neonates expose to oxygen for a longer period may suffer from -
(1) Glaucoma
(2) Retrolental fibroplasias
(3) Eye infection
(4) None of the above
76. What is the nurse’s responsibility in an unusual situation when she administers wrong medicine orally -
(1) Keep it secret
(2) Inform the sister in charge next day
(3) Ask the patient to vomit it out immediately and inform the doctor
(4) Write it in the report book
77. Which of the following test must be done before the patient starts taking imipramine -
(1) Electrocardiogram
(2) Urine Protein
(3) Thyroid scan
(4) Creatinine clearance test
78. Which of the following clinical feature alert the nurse to lithium toxicity -
(1) Increased agitated behavior
(2) Marked increased food intake
(3) Sudden increase in blood pressure
(4) Anorexia with nausea and vomiting
79. Which of the following hormones is not produced by placenta -
(1) Testosterone
(2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) Human chronic gonadotropin
80. Drugs used to counteract the bleeding complication due to heparin over dose -
(1) Calcium gluconate
(2) Protamine sulphate
(3) Methargine
(4) Nitrogerrantoin
81. Which are the drugs to be avoided for a hemophilic child -
(1) Acetyl salicylic acid
(2) magnesium hydroxide
(3) Acetaminophen
(4) Poly-vi-sol
82. Sign and symptoms of cardiogenic shock -
(1) Oliguria
(2) Bradycardia
(3) Elevated blood pressure
(4) Fever
83. Digoxin is administered intravenously to the patient as drug acts to -
(1) Dilate coronary arteries
(2) Increase myocardical contractility
(3) Decrease electrical conductivity to hear
(4) Decrease cardiac dysrrhythmias
84. A patient has undergone mitral valve replacement having persistant bleeding form surgical incision in the early postoperative period, which drug will be administered :-
(1) Protamine sulface
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Quinidine Sulpahte
(4) Warfarin sodium
85. Genital tuberculosis occur mainly in women in the following organ :-
(1) Fallopian tube
(2) Uterus
(3)Cervix
(4) Vagina
Click Below Given Link to Read Answer.
73. The mother’s blood pressure climbs to 170/100 mmHg. Which of the following symptoms would suggest to the nurse that the patient may be about to convulse -
(1) Increased fetal movements
(2) Decreased temperature
(3) Epigastric pain
(4) Urine Outpur of 40 ml/hour
74. The mother is diagnosed with partial placenta previa. The nurse tells the client that the usual treatment for partial placenta prevail is -
(1) Bed rest
(2) Adminstration of platelets
(3) Immediate caesarean section delivery
(4) Induction of labour with oxytocin
75. Neonates expose to oxygen for a longer period may suffer from -
(1) Glaucoma
(2) Retrolental fibroplasias
(3) Eye infection
(4) None of the above
76. What is the nurse’s responsibility in an unusual situation when she administers wrong medicine orally -
(1) Keep it secret
(2) Inform the sister in charge next day
(3) Ask the patient to vomit it out immediately and inform the doctor
(4) Write it in the report book
77. Which of the following test must be done before the patient starts taking imipramine -
(1) Electrocardiogram
(2) Urine Protein
(3) Thyroid scan
(4) Creatinine clearance test
78. Which of the following clinical feature alert the nurse to lithium toxicity -
(1) Increased agitated behavior
(2) Marked increased food intake
(3) Sudden increase in blood pressure
(4) Anorexia with nausea and vomiting
79. Which of the following hormones is not produced by placenta -
(1) Testosterone
(2) Estrogen
(3) Progesterone
(4) Human chronic gonadotropin
80. Drugs used to counteract the bleeding complication due to heparin over dose -
(1) Calcium gluconate
(2) Protamine sulphate
(3) Methargine
(4) Nitrogerrantoin
81. Which are the drugs to be avoided for a hemophilic child -
(1) Acetyl salicylic acid
(2) magnesium hydroxide
(3) Acetaminophen
(4) Poly-vi-sol
82. Sign and symptoms of cardiogenic shock -
(1) Oliguria
(2) Bradycardia
(3) Elevated blood pressure
(4) Fever
83. Digoxin is administered intravenously to the patient as drug acts to -
(1) Dilate coronary arteries
(2) Increase myocardical contractility
(3) Decrease electrical conductivity to hear
(4) Decrease cardiac dysrrhythmias
(1) Protamine sulface
(2) Vitamin C
(3) Quinidine Sulpahte
(4) Warfarin sodium
85. Genital tuberculosis occur mainly in women in the following organ :-
(1) Fallopian tube
(2) Uterus
(3)Cervix
(4) Vagina
Click Below Given Link to Read Answer.
Click Below Given Link to Read Answer.
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JIPMER,DSSSB,RRB,RUHS,BHU,AMU,ESIC,HSSC,HPSSSB,SCTIMST,BFUHS,SPGI ,RPSC,NRHMNRHM NRHM,AND ALL OTHER STAFF NURSE RECRUITMENT EXAM QUESTION PAPER PDF NOW VISIT OUR WEBSITE
India’s no.1 site for staff nurse question paper pdf download