Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 24 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 24 with Answer


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➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 24 with Answer---






Q. 01 To prevent foot drop in a patient with Buck's Traction, the Nurse should ___?
A. Ensure proper body positioning
B. Teach the client isometric exercises
C. Place pillows under the client's heals
D. Tuck the sheets into foot of the bed
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Q. 02 A comatose patient is at risk for the development of pressure Ulcers, Therefore
the nurse should include which of the following activity in the plan of care.?
A. Wash skin with soap and water frequently
B. Establish an individualized turning schedule
C. Use donut-shaped cushion on the sacral region
D. Massage red areas on bony prominences regularly


Q. 03 A Nurse is teaching a new hemodialysis patient. Hemodialysis is successful in
the treatment of ESRD. Because it __?
A. Restores renal endocrine function
B. Mimics renal function
C. Restores urinary ability
D. Improves immune function


Q. 04 Using the Rule of Nine, the Nurse determines the percentage of the body burnt,
a client with both arms burnt to be __?
A. 1%
B. 9%
C. 18%
D. 36%


Q. 05 Which intervention is appropriate for a patient with skeletal traction?
A. Pin care
B. Intermittent weights
C. Prone positioning
D. 5 lb weight limit


Q. 06 A patient has undergone an endoscopy of the upper GI tract. The Nursing care
plan should include which of the following.?
A. Administering analgesics for pain
B. Observing the client for rectal bleeding
C. Withholding foods until a gag reflex is present
D. Positioning the client on the right side



Q. 07 Nursing care for a patient with an arteriovenous (AV) Fistula aimed at
maintaining patency Includes.?
A. Taking BP in the affected area
B. Palpating for a bruit
C. Keeping the arm free of constriction
D. Applying heat to maintain circulation


Q. 08 A Nurse is assigned to care of group of clients. On the review of the client
Medical records the nurse determines that which client is at risk for fluid volume
excess.?
A. The client on diuretics
B. The client with ileostomy
C. The client on GI suctioning
D. The client with renal failure
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Q. 09 A Nurse plans care for client with COPD knowing that the client is most likely
to experience what type of acid base balance.?
A. Respiratory Acidosis
B. Metabolic Acidosis
C. Respiratory Alkalosis
D. Metabolic Alkalosis



Q. 10 Which of the following arterial blood gas values is consistent with metabolic
acidosis.?
A. Bicarbonate 16 mEq/L
B. PaCO2 48 mm of Hg
C. PH 7.35
D. SpO2 90%


Q. 11 After 48 hours, Successful fluid resuscitation of a burn victim can be evaluated
by __?
A. Weight
B. Urine Output
C. Urine specific gravity
D. Peripheral perfusion


Q. 12 An end stage AIDS Client required suctioning when performing this task the
nurse is correct to wear.?
A. A mask and eye protection
B. Sterile gloves and eye protection
C. A mask and sterile gloves
D. A mask, eye protection and sterile gloves



Q. 13 A Nurse is caring for client who has been taking diuretics on long term basis. A
fluid volume deficit is suspected. Which assessment finding would be noted in a client
with this condition.?
A. Rales
B. CVP
C. BP
D. Hematocrit
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Q. 14 The most common cause of retinal detachment is ___?
A. Trauma
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Brain tumor
D. Degenerative changes in the retina and vitreous



Q. 15 A client with cancer is receiving chemotherapy and develops thrombocytopenia.
A Nurse identifies which intervention as the highest priority in the Nursing care
plan.?
A. Ambulation three times daily
B. Monitoring for pathological fractures
C. Monitoring the platelet count
D. Monitoring temperature



Q. 16 To which collaborative health care team member should the nurse refer the
client the late stages of Myasthenia Gravis.?
A. Occupational therapist
B. Vocational Therapist
C. Speech Therapist
D. Recreational Therapist



Q. 17 A Nurse is preparing to care for parent with a potassium (K) deficit the nurse
reviews the patient's record and determines that the client is at risk for developing the
K deficit because of the client.?
A. Is on K sparing diuretics
B. Is on Nasogastric suction
C. Has history of Addison's disease
D. Has history of renal disease


Q. 18 A Nurse is changing the central line dressing of a patient receiving TPN. She
notes that the catheter insertion site appears reddened. The nurse next assesses which
of the following.?
A. Expiration date on the bag
B. Tightness of tubing connections
C. Clients temperature
D. Time of the last dressing change
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Q. 19 The nurse is preparing to hang fat emulsion. The nurse notes that fat globules
are visible at the top of the solution. The nurse takes which of the following Actions.?
A. Roll the bottle of solution vigorously
B. Obtains a different bottle of solution
C. Shakes the bottle of solution gently
D. Runs the bottle of solution under warm water



Q. 20 A patient has just undergone insertion of Central Venous Catheter at the
bedside. A Nurse would be sure to check the results of which of the following before
increasing the flow rate of the IV solution attached to the line.?
A. Serum electrolyte
B. Portable Chest X-Ray
C. Serum Osmolality
D. Intake Output Chart



Q. 21 A Nurse is Assisting a physician with the removal of chest tube. The nurse most
appropriately instructs the patient to ___?
A. Stay very still
B. Inhale and Exhale Quickly
C. Perform Valsalva Maneuver
D. Exhale as the tube is pulled out
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Q. 22 A Nurse is caring for a patient who goes into ventricular tachycardia. Which
should the nurse implement first.?
A. Call a code immediately
B. Begin chest compressions
C. Assess the pulse of a patient
D. Continue to monitor the client



Q. 23 Which Laboratory data confirms the diagnosis of congestive heart failure.?
A. Chest X-Ray
B. Beta Type Natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. LFT
D. BUN


Q. 24 Which Assessment data would the nurse assess in the client diagnosed with
Gullian Barre syndrome.?
A. Cogwheel rigidity and inability to initiate voluntary movement
B. An exaggerated starle reflex and memory changes
C. Progressive ascending paralysis of the lower extremities and numbness
D. Sudden severe unilateral facial pain and inability to chew


Q. 25 The patient comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with otitis media. Which
intervention should the clinic Nurse include in the discharge teaching.?
A. Encourage the client to Apply cold packs to the affected ear
B. Instruct the client not to take any over the counter pain medication
C. Wear a protective earplug in affected ear
D. Tell the client to call the HCP if an abrupt relief of ear pain occurs


Q. 26 The patient is Diagnosed with Glaucoma. Which symptom would the nurse
Expect the client to report.?
A. A yellow haze around everything
B. Halos around lights
C. A curtain coming across vision
D. Floating spots in the vision
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Q. 27 Which referral would be most important for the client with permanent hearing
loss.?
A. Aural rehabilitation
B. Speech Therapist
C. Social worker
D. Vocational rehabilitation


Q. 28 The nurse find the patient unresponsive on the floor on bathroom. Which action
should the nurse implement first.?
A. Check the client for breathing
B. Shake the client and shout
C. Assess the carotid artery for pulse
D. Call a code via the bathroom call light


Q. 29 The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with COPD. Which data would
warrant immediate intervention by the Nurse.?
A. The patient's pulse oximeter reading is 92%
B. The patients arterial blood gas level is 74
C. The patient's sputum is rusty colored
D. The patient has SOB when walking to the bathroom


Q. 30 Which type of precaution should the nurse implement to protect from being
exposed to any of the hepatitis viruses.?
A. Airborne precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Standard precautions
D. Exposure precautions
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Q. 31 What is the priority problem in the client diagnosed with congestive heart
failure.?
A. Fluid volume overload
B. Decreased cardiac output
C. Knowledge deficit
D. Activity intolerance


Q. 32 Which type of precautions should the nurse implement for the patient diagnosed
with septic meningitis.?
A. Contact precautions
B. Droplet precautions
C. Airborne precautions
D. Standard precautions
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Q. 33 The patient diagnosed with atrial fibrillation has experienced a transient
ischemic attack (TIA). Which medication would the nurse anticipated being ordered
for the patient on discharge.?
A. A. Beta blocker medication
B. An oral anticoagulant medication
C. A thrombolytic medication
D. An anti hyperuricemic medication


Q. 34 A patient diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage has undergone a
craniotomy for repair of a ruptured aneurysm. Which intervention will the intensive
care Nurse implement.?
A. Administer a stool softener BID
B. Monitor neurological status every shift
C. Encourage the client to cough hourly
D. Maintain the dopamine drip to keep BP at 160/90


Q. 35 Which medication should the nurse Expect the health care provider to order for
a patient diagnosed with arterial occlusive disease.?
A. An anti coagulant medication
B. An anti platelet medication
C. A muscle relaxant
D. An antihypertensive medication


Q. 36 The following methods can be used to identify training needs EXCEPT ___
A. Professional standards
B. Job Description
C. Employee surveys
D. Job analysis
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Q. 37 Which of the following data indicates whether high quality care is being
maintained.?
A. Audit
B. Quality indicators
C. Key indicators
D. Quality assurances


Q. 38 Which type of patient’s assignment needs specific personnel.?
A. Patient method
B. Team method
C. Functional method
D. None of these


Q. 39 Which of the following is the process by which the manager assigns specific
duties.?
A. Coordination
B. Delegation
C. Supervision
D. Communteation
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Q. 40 Functional Nursing is a method of providing.?
A. Equipment care
B. Patient care
C. Case management
D. Care of records


Q. 41 Which of the following is the most managerial issue in emergency case.?
A. Inadequate Staff
B. Security
C. Triage
D. Inadequate supply


Q. 42 Supervisors have several roles to play. Which of the following is not among the
roles a supervisor plays.?
A. Coach to employees
B. Informing employees regarding organizational policies
C. Authoritative
D. Mentor to employees
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Q. 43 What could be a factor that hinders the smooth running of the team process.?
A. An effective team leader
B. Objectives that are easily achievable
C. Everyone focused on the project
D. Team member having problems


Q. 44 Postpartum hemorrhage is loss of blood which is more than ___?
A. 900 ml
B. 500 ml
C. 800 ml
D. 100 ml


Q. 45 In fetal blood vessels, where is the oxygen content highest.?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Ductus Arteriosus
C. Ductus Venous
D. Umbilical Artery
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Q. 46 The type of hospital patient care assignment which requires giving complete
Nursing care to a specific number and category of patient during the scheduled duty
hours.?
A. Functional assignment
B. Organizational Nursing
C. Team Nursing
D. Individual care assignment


Q. 47 The type of Nursing care assignment is best suited in an intensive care unit.?
A. Case method
B. Primary care method
C. Team method
D. Functional method


Q. 48 What is the normal color of the amniotic fluid when the bag of water ruptures.?
A. As like water
B. Bluish
C. Yellowish
D. Brownish
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Q. 49 Which of the following measures would the nurse include in the teaching plan
about the method to prevent breast engorgement in post-partum period.?
A. Decreasing fluid intake for the first 24 to 48 hours
B. Breastfeeding neonate at frequently intervals
C. Wearing a supportive brassiere with nipple Shields
D. Feeding the Neonate a maximum of 5 minutes per side on first day



Q. 50 Which of the following can lead to greenish discoloration of the amniotic
fluid.?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnios
C. Vernix
D. Meconium


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