Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 19 with Answer

Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 19 with Answer

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➧Download Staff Nurse Exam Model Question Paper 19 with Answer

  •     [Total Questions - 50 with Answers]




Q. 01 Imbalance or in-coordination of muscle that moves the eyeball is found in
A. Conjunctivitis
B. Squint strabismus
C. Cataract
D. Glaucoma


Q. 02 A nurse in the labour room is caring for a client in the active stage of labour.
The nurse is assessing the fetal patterns and notes a late deceleration on the monitor
strip. The appropriate nursing action is to -
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Place the mother in a supine position
C. Increase the rate of the Oxytocin (pitocin) intra venous infusion
D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the fetal patterns



Q. 03 After an amniotomy has been performed, a nurse should first assess -
A. For cervical dilation
B. For bladder distention
C. The maternal blood pressure
D. The fetal heart rate pattern


Q. 04 A client in labour has been pushing effectively for 1 hour. A nurse determines
that client’s primary physiological need at this time is to -
A. Ambulate
B. Rest between contractions
C. Change positions frequently
D. Consume oral food and fluids
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Q. 05 A nurse is monitoring a client in the immediate post-partum period for signs of
hemorrhage. Which of the following signs, if noted, would be an early sign of
excessive blood loss?
A. A temperature of 100.4 degree F
B. A blood pressure change from 130/88 to 124/80 mmHg
C. An increase in the pulse rate from 88 to 102 beats/min
D. An increase in the respiratory rate from 18 to 22 beats/min


Q. 06 A nurse is preparing a plan of care for a newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome.
The nurse should include which priority intervention in the plan of care?
A. Allow the newborn to establish own sleep rest pattern
B. Maintain the newborn in a brightly lighted area of the nursery
C. Encourage frequent handling of the newborn by staff and parents
D. Monitor the newborn’s response to feedings and weight gain pattern



Q. 07 A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving Oxytocin (pitocin) to induce
labour. The nurse discontinues the Oxytocin infusion if which of the following is
noted on assessment of the client?
A. Fatigue
B. Drowsiness
C. Uterine hyper stimulation
D. Early deceleration of the fetal heart rate


Q. 08 A client in preterm labour (31 weeks) who is dilated to 4 cm has been started on
magnesium sulfate and contractions have stopped. If the client’s labour can be
inhibited for the next 48 hours, what medication does the nurse anticipate will be
prescribed?
A. Betamethasone
B. Nalbuphine (Nubain)
C. Rh (D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
D. Dinoprostone (Cervidil vaginal insert)


Q. 09 The opioid analgesic is administered to a client in labour. The nurse assigned to
care for the client ensures that which medication is really available if respiratory
depression occurs?
A. Betamethasone
B. Morphine sulfate
C. Naloxone (Narcan)
D. Meperidine hydrochloride (Demerol)
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Q. 10 In multipara, time period of latent phase in partograph is about –

A. 4 hours
B. 8 hours
C. 12 hours breach of duty
D. 16 hours


Q. 11 The nurse, who has received no recent immunization, is stuck with needle that
had been used on the patient. Which of the following is this nurse at greater risk of
contracting?
A. HIV
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C
D. Scabies


Q. 12 Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy -

A. 12-14 weeks
B. 14-16 weeks
C. 16-18 weeks
D. 9-11 weeks


Q. 13 21-year old Rashmi has arrived with c/o cramping abdominal pain and mild
vaginal bleeding. Culdocentesis shows blood in the culdesa. This client probably has
which of the following conditions?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Ectopic pregnancy
C. Hydatidiform mole
D. Pelvic inflammatory disease


Q. 14 A patient 34 weeks pregnant, arrives at the hospital with severe abdominal pain,
uterine tenderness and an increased uterine tone. The patient most likely has which of
the following?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Hydatidiform mole


Q. 15 Which of the following explanations best explains why a pregnant client should
lie on her left side when resting or sleeping in the later stage of pregnancy?
A. To facilitate digestion
B. To facilitate bladder emptying
C. To prevent compression of vena cava
D. To avoid fetal anomalies
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Q. 16 A woman has just given birth at 42 weeks of gestation. When assessing the
neonate, which physical finding is expected?
A. A sleepy, lethargic baby
B. Lanugo covering body
C. Desquamation of the epidermis
D. Vernix caseosa covering the body


Q. 17 A client is receiving MgSO4 therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. The nurse must
be alert for which of the following signs of excessive blood magnesium level?
A. Increase in respiratory rate
B. Sensorium stimulation
C. Disappearance of knee-jerk reflex
D. Appearance of cardiac dysarrythmias


Q. 18 After reviewing the woman’s maternal history of magnesium sulfate during
labor, which condition would the nurse anticipate as a potential problem in the
neonate?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Jitteriness
C. Respiratory depression
D. Tachycardia


Q. 19 27-year old Meera states that after the delivery she has noticed some of
episodes of sadness and tearfulness. Which of the following is the most appropriate
diagnosis?
A. Maternity blues
B. Postpartum depression
C. Postpartum mania
D. Postpartum psychosis
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Q. 20 Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart
disease?
A. IUCD
B. Depo-Provera
C. E-pills
D. Oral contraceptive pills


Q. 21 An important landmark of the pelvis that determines the distance of the descent
of head is known as
A. Linea terminals
B. Sacurm
C. Ischial spines
D. Ischial tuberosities


Q. 22 Measles vaccine is kept in refrigerator in -
A. Chilled tray
B. Freezer
C. Tray below freezer
D. Shelves in the door


Q. 23 Disinfectant used for water purification is -
A. 5 gm bleaching powder for 100 liter of water
B. 10 gm chlorine for one liter of water
C. 2% ethanol solution for one liter of water
D. 5 mg potassium permanganate


Q. 24 Fertility rate can be reduced by -
A. Spacing of pregnancy
B. Early marriage
C. Female literacy
D. Compulsory sterilization


Q. 25 The father of Germ theory of disease was
A. Louis Pasteur
B. Newton
C. Virginia Apgav
D. Albert Einstein
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Q. 26 All are true indicators of health for all except -
A. Family size
B. Annual growth rate 1 : 2
C. Life expectancy 64 years
D. IMR < 60


Q. 27 IUCD acts -
A. Killing spermatozoa
B. Aseptic inflammation of endometrium
C. Increase cervical mucus
D. Preventing the fertilization of ova


Q. 28 Under the National Population Policy, family size should be brought down to -
A. 1
B. 2.3
C. 3.2
D. 4.2


Q. 29 Dengue fever is also called as -
A. Enteric fever
B. Q fever
C. Break bone fever
D. Brain fever


Q. 30 Which of the following is not a minor ailment?
A. Injuries fall and burn
B. Chest pain in a heart patient
C. Diarrhoea
D. Heart stroke and fainting
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Q. 31 Consent from guardian for MTP is required if -
A. Female is unmarried
B. Female is below 33 years of age
C. Female is divorced
D. Female is below 17 years of age


Q. 32 Which is the most suitable method for disposal of night soil in the rural areas?
A. Biogas plant
B. Composting
C. Dumping
D. Manure pit


Q. 33 Orthotolidine test is used to determine -
A. Nitrate in water
B. Potassium in water
C. Ammonia in water
D. Free combined chlorine in water


Q. 34 Vector borne diseases are transmitted by -
A. Air
B. Water
C. Animals
D. Insects


Q. 35 As per Birth and Death Registration Act, the birth should be registered within
A. 5 days
B. 7 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days


Q. 36 Megaloblastic anemia is caused due to deficiency of -
A. B12
B. B2
C. B6
D. B1
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Q. 37 Recommended site for administer of DPT in infant is -
A. Gluteal
B. Deltoid
C. Linear aspect of thigh
D. Forearm


Q. 38 Floating tip of the iceberg represents -
A. Clinical cases
B. Apparent cases
C. Latent cases
D. Un-diagnosed cases


Q. 39 False about leprosy eradication programme is -
A. Early detection of cases
B. Disability imitation
C. Long term multi drug therapy
D. Health education


Q. 40 Case finding in RNTCP is based on -
A. Sputum culture
B. Sputum microscopy
C. X-ray chest
D. Mantoux test/PCR


Q. 41 PAP smear is the example of -
A. Primordial prevention
B. Primary prevention
C. Secondary prevention
D. tertiary prevention
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Q. 42 The most common degenerate joint disease in the elderly, often caused by wear
and tear is -
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Gouty arthritis
D. Ankylosing spondylitis


Q. 43 Haemopoiesis is a process of the production of -

A. Blood plasma
B. Erythrocytes
C. Bone marrow
D. Haemoglobin


Q. 44 Which of the following is not required for clot formation?
A. Vitamin K
B. Calcium
C. Plasmin
D. Blood cell


Q. 45 The wave of contraction is under the control of -
A. Parasympathetic nerve
B. Mandibular nerve
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Auditory nerve


Q. 46 Which of the following is not the function of the liver?
A. Carbohydrate, lipid and protein metabolism
B. Excretion of bilirubin
C. Nucleic acid metabolism
D. Synthesis of bile salts and activation of Vitamin D
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Q. 47 Which part of brain is associated with control of breathing?
A. Midbrain
B. Pons
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Both (b) and (c)


Q. 48 Which part of brain regulates posture and balance?
A. Midbrain
B. Cerebellum
C. Diencephalon
D. Cerebrum
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Q. 49 Hormones are -
A. Enzymes
B. Proenzymes
C. Inorganic chemicals
D. Organic chemicals


Q. 50 Myxedema is caused by the deficiency of a hormone secreted by
A. Parathyroid
B. Hypothalamus
C. Thyroid
D. Pineal body

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