ESIC Staff Nurse Exam 2012 Question Paper Download



Are Preparing for ESIC STAFF NURSE GRADE II Recruitment Examination. And wants to Read or Download Previous Year ESIC STAFF NURSE GRADE II Recruitment Question papers Pdf for Preparation of Your ESIC STAFF NURSE EXAM. We have upload All ESIC STAFF NURSE GRADE II Recruitment Examination Previous Year Questions Papers Pdf like ESIC DELHI, Ahamdabad, Bhiwari, Jaipur, Jammu, Chandigarh, and Many more for Nursing student who prepare himself for competitive nursing exam like AIIMS PGIMER JIPMER DSSSB RAILWAY ESIC AND MANY MORE COMPETITIVE NURSING EXAM.  You also need to Read Previous Year Questions papers for Cracking any Competition Examination.  We Are Also Provide AIIMS, PGIMER, JIPMER, DSSSB, RAILWAY, MILITARY, CRPF, ESIC, HPSSSB, RUHS, BFUHS, BHU, RPSC, LNJP,RML,and More Previous Year staff Nurse Grade II Recruitment Examination Questions Papers Pdf For Nursing student who prepare himself for competitive nursing exam.  You can Download other Many Previous Year Staff Nurse Grade II Recruitment Exam Questions Papers Pdf From our website Now Visit Our website for More Questions Papers please visit here  
You can click Below Link to Download Previous Year staff Nurse Exam Question papers Pdf Now. 



1. The present attorney General of India is:
(a) Ashok Desai
(b) Soli Sorabjee
(c) Goolam Essaji Vahanvati
(d) Milon K banerjee

2. Sachin Tendukar completed his 100th century in a recently held one-day international
cricket match against Bangaladesh. Who was his companion batsman at the other end when this history was created?
(a) Gautam Gambhir
(b) Suresh Raina
(c) Virat Kohli
(d) Rohit Sharma

3. How will the number 500 be represented in Roman notion:
(a) L
(b) M
(c) D
(d) C

4. Total number of days in February, March, April and May of year 2008 is:
(a) 120
(b) 121
(c) 119
(d) 122

5. In the given dice, which number is opposite of number 6:
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5

6. Three fifth of two third of one fourth of a number is 40 more than one sixth of
660. What is 50% of that number:
(a) 850
(b) 750
(c) 700
(d)None of these

7. When the price of tea is reduced by 20%, 4 kg of tea can be purchased more for Rs. 80/- Find the original price of tea:
(a) Rs.5/- per kg
(b) Rs. 8/- per kg
(c) Rs.10/- per kg
(d) None of these.


14. Which one number can be placed at the sign of interrogation

(a) 25
(b) 37
(c) 47
(d) None of these

15. Which one number can be placed at the sign of interrogation?
(a) 5 
(b) 0 
(c) 4 
(d) 3
16. Tuberculosis is caused by polluted:
(a) Air
(b) Water
(c) Food
(d) Fomites.

17. Polio is transmitted through:
(a) Water
(b) Air
(c) Food
(d) Insects

18. A person with no sign of disease but may transmit, it is called:
(a) A resistant person
(b) Immune person
(c) A carrier person
(d) An allergic person.

19. For eye examination the instrument used is:
(a) Stethoscope
(b) Otoscope
(c) Opthalmoscope
(d) Percussion hammer

20. Following is a contagious disease:
(a) Malaria
(b) Filaria
(c) Tuberculosis
(d) Hookworm infestation
21. Thyroid gland is present in:
(a) Chest
(b) Abdomen
(c) Neck
(d) Back

22. Who is regarded as “Father of Medicine”?
(a) Paracelsus
(b) Aristotle
(c) Galen
(d) Hippocrates.

23. The instrument used to measure blood pressure is:
(a) Stethescope
(b) Sphygmomanometer
(c) Electrocardiograph
(d) Rotameter

24. Dehydration is caused in the human body due to:
(a) Less of vitamins
(b) Loss of water
(c) Loss of Salt
(d) Loss of minerals.

25. All these are sterilized by chemicals except:
(a) Scissors
(b) Endoscopes
(c) Gauze
(d) Cables

26. B.C.G. vaccine is given to protect the child against:
(a) Diphtheria
(b) Tetanus
(c) Typhoid
(d) Tuberculosis

27. Protein deficiency disease is known as:
(a) Kwashiorkar
(b) Cushing’s disease
(c) Gaucher’s disease
(d) None of these above

28. Bone deformation can occur due to lack of:
(a) Calcium
(b) Phosphorus
(c) Vitamin D 
(d) All of these.

29. A drug can:
(a) Cure disease
(b) Diagnose disease
(c) Prevent disease
(d) All of the above.

30. Vitamin ‘D’ deficiency may result in:
(a) Rickets
(b) Beriberi
(c) Scurvey
(d) Night blindness

31. Which is not cancer:
(a) Leukaemia
(b) Glaucoma
(c) Carcinoma
(d) Sarcoma
32. Vitamin essential for coagulation of blood is:
(a) B
(b) D
(c) K
(d) A

33. Who invented thermometer:
(a) Galileo Galilee 
(b) Lord Kelvin
(c) Celsius
(d) Thomas J. Manning

34. Which of the following vitamins is considered as good for eyes:
(a) k
(b) A
(c) B
(d) C

35. Which bone is the largest bone in human body:
(a) Femur
(b) Humerus
(c) Tibia
(d) Radius

36. In human body unoxygenated blood is purified by:
(a) Lungs
(b) Heart
(c) Kidney
(d) Lever

37. ELISA test is used to detect:
(a) Malaria infection
(b) Cholera infection
(c) HIV infection
(d) Lung infection

38. A clinical thermometer indicates temperatures in degree Fahrenheit from:
(a) 94 to 108 
(b) 96 to 108
(c) 94 to 110
(d) 96 to 110

39. The normal breath rate of human beings is:
(a) 12-15 per minute
(b) 15-18 per minute
(c) 20-24 per minute
(d) 22-25 per minute

40. Which part of body is affected in typhoid:
(a) Lungs
(b) Intestines
(c) Lever
(d) Pancreas

41. On average an adult human has:

(a) 300 bones

(b) 206 bones

(C) 210 bones

(d) 305 bones

42. In an adult, the skeleton comprises around:
(a) 30-40% of the total body weight
(b) 10-20% of the total body weight
(c) 40-50% of the total body weight
(d) 60-70% of the total body weight
43. Which of the following is most dangerous complication during induction of
Spinal anesthesia?
(a) Tachycardia
(b) Hypotension
(c) Hyperthermia
(d) Bradypnea

44. Which of the following nursing actions should be given highest priority when
admitting the patient into the operating room?
(a) Level of consciousness
(b) Vital signs
(c) Patient identification and correct operative consent
(d) positioning and skin preperation.
45. Which of the following is the earliest sign of poor respiratory function?
(a) Cyanosis
(b) Fast thready pulse
(c) Restlessness
(d) Faintness

46. If wound eviscerations occurs, the immediate nursing action is:
(a) Cover the wound with sterile gauze moistened with sterile NSS
(b) Cover the wound with water-soaked gauze
(c) Cover the wound with sterile dry gauze
(d) Leave the wound uncovered and pull the skin edges together.

47. How frequent should the nurse monitor the VS of the patient in the recovery
(a) Every 15 minutes
(b) Every 30 min
(c) Every 45 min
(d) Every 60 min

48. The most important factor in the prevention of post-operative infection is:
(a) Proper administration of antibiotics
(b) Fluid intake of 2-3 L/day
(c) Practice of strict aseptic techniques
(d) Frequent change of wound dressings

49. The skin is shaved prior to surgery in order to:
(a) facilitate skin incision
(b) Indicate the site to be draped
(c) To prevent wound infection
(d) Reduce post operation scarring.
50. The important nursing intervention prior to administration of pre-anesthetic
medication is:
(a) Ask patient to empty the bladder
(b) Do deep breathing and coughing exercises
(c) Regulate IVF accurately
(d) Shave the skin

51. When the patient vomits, the most important nursing objective is to prevent:
(a) Dehydration
(b) Aspiration
(c) Rupture of suture line 
(d) Met. Alkalosis

52. Oxygen therapy is recommended in:
(a) Severe respiratory distress
(b) Severe trauma
(c) Acute myocardial infarction
(d) All the above

53. Nursing responsibilities for either external or internal radiation therapy include:
(a) Carefully assess and manage any complications, in collaboration with theradiation oncologist.
(b) Assist in documenting the results of the therapy
(c) Provide emotional support
(d) All the above.
54. Nursing care in electroconvulsive therapy include:
(a) Providing educational and emotional support
(b) Pre-treatment planning and assessment
(c) Preparing and monitoring the patient during the actual precedure
(d) All the above.

55. Contraction of the abdominal muscles is important in:
(a) Normal (quiet) inspiration
(b) Forced (maximum)
(c) Normal (quiet) expiration 
(d) Forced (maximum) expiration
56. Volume remaining in the lungs and airways following a maximum expiratory effort is known as:
(a) Vital capacity
(b) Residual volume
(c) Tidal capacity
(d) Total lung capacity
57. Smooth muscle tissue is located in:
(a) The stomach
(b) Intestines
(c) Urinary bladder
(d) All the above
58. Powerhouse of the cell is:
(a) Mitochondria
(b) Golgi bodies
(c) Nucleus
(d) Cell wall
59. Arteriosclerosis results due to increase uptake of:
(a) Proteins
(b) Diet poor in vitamins
(c) Insufficient iron uptake.
(d) carbohydrate

60. The process by which proteins are broken down to their amino acids is also called:

(a) Glycolysis
(b) Glycogenolysis
(c) Proteolysis
(d) All the above

61. Protein deficiency results in:
(a) Rickets
(b) Kwashiorkor
(c) Tetany
(d) Pellagra

62. The breakdown products of hemoglobin is:
(a) Phospholipids
(b) Prothrombin
(c) Bile pigments
(d) Fibrin

63. Largest internal organ of human body is:
(a) Heart
(b) Liver
(c) Lungs
(d) Kidney

64. Prothrombin is produced by:
(a) Blood
(b) Spleen
(c) Liver
(d) Ovary

65. A compound within a cell nucleus that consists of a protein bound to a nucleic acid is called
(a) Albumin
(b) Glycoprotein
(d) Nucleoprotein
(d) All the above

66. The technique is used for most routine protein and nucleic acid seperation is:
(a) Electrophoresis
(b) Chromatography
(c) Filtration
(d) Evaporation
67. In 1860 Nightingale set up the first nursing training school at :
(a) Petersburg, Virginia
(b) University of Edinburgh
(c) St Thomas’ Hospital, London.
(d) None of the above
68. In the community health responsibilities of nurse include:
(a) Administering public health services
(b) Teaching people and providing information to people
(c) Recording and analyzing health data.
(d) All the above

69. Choosing the appropriate catheter depends on:
(a) The size of the patient’s urethral canal.
(b) The expected duration of catheterization
(c) Knowledge of any allergies to latex or plastic
(d) All the above.
70. Curved or Coude catheters have:
(a) An inflatable balloon that encircles the tip near the lumen or opening.
(b) A rounded curved tip
(c) A single lumen with a small 1 1/4 cm opening
(d) A single lumen with a small 1 1/24 cm opening

71. The number of pairs of cranial nerves are:
(a) 12 
(b) 14
(c) 16
 (d) 10

72. The Autonomic Nervous System regulates visceral activities such as:
(a) Respiration
(b) Gastrointestinal motility
(c) Contraction of smooth muscles
(d) All the above

73. Number of pairs of spinal nerves that exit from the spinal cord are:
(a) 24
(b) 30
(c) 31
(d) 33

74. Electroencephalogram is:
(a) Recording of brain wave activity
(b) Recording of heart activity
(c) Recording of peristalsis
(d) None of the above.

75. Meningitis is:
(a) Inflammation of the membranes that surround the heart
(b) Inflammation of the membranes that surround the liver
(c) Inflammation of the membranes that surround the kidney
(d) Inflammation of the membranes that surround the brain and the spinal cord

76. Corticosteroid is naturally produced by:
(a) Thyroid gland 
(b) Adrenal glands
(c) Thalamus
(d) Ovary

77. Aspartate aminotransferase enzyme:
(a) Plays a role in metabolism, the process that converts food into energy
(b) Plays a role in processing proteins
(c) Both (a) & (b)
(d) None of the above

78. ALT exceeds AST in:
(a) Toxic hepatitis
(b) Viral hepatitis
(c) Cholestatic hepatitis
(d) All the above

79. Gall bladder is located:
(a) Upper right part of abdomen
(b) Below the liver
(c) On right side of liver
(d) On the left side of liver

80. Helicobacter pylori bacteria is responsible for:
(a) Peptic ulcer
(b) Encephalitis
(c) Typhoid
(d) Pneumonia

81. Measure of the overall strength of binding of an antigen with many antigenic
determinants and multivalent antibodies is called:
(a) Affinity 
(b) Activity
(c) Avidity
(d) None of the above

82. The bonds that hold the antigen to the antibody combining site are:
(a) Hydrophilic bond
(b) Covalent bond
(c) Co-ordinate covalent bond
(d) None of the above

83. The widal test is positive if TO antigen titer is more than :
(a) 1:160 in an infection
(b) 1:80 in an active infection
(c) 1:70 in an active infection
(d) 1:90 in an active infection

84. In normal person the percentage of glycosylated haemoglobin is:
(a) 15.5
(b) 17.9
(c) 7
(d) 14.5

85. Test for hypersensitivity is called:
(a) Patrick’s test
(b) Patch test
(c) Post-coital test
(d) None of the above

86. VDRL test is performed to diagnose:
(a) Pregnancy
(b) Syphillis
(c) Myasthenia gravis
(d) All the above

87. Viruses are”
(a) Pieces of nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) wrapped in a thin coat of protien
that replicate only within the cells of living hosts
(b) One-cell microorganisms with a simple cellular organization whose nucleus lacks a membrane.
(c) Multicellular organisms that live in or on a host to obtain nourishment with out providing any benefit to the host.
(d) None of the above

88. Coomon cold is caused by:
(a) Escherichia coil
(b) Rhinovirus
(c) Staphylococcus aureus
(d) Shigella

89. Malaria is caused by a:
(a) Protozoa
(b) Fungi
(c) Virus
(d) Bacteria

90. Clotrimazole is:
(a) Antiviral drug
(b) Antifungal drug
(c) Antiprotozoal drug
(d) Antibacterial drug

91. Which day is celebrated as Labour Day:
(a) 1th May
(b) 30th May
(c) 1st June
(d) None of the above

92. Famous “Meenakshi Temple” is in:
(a) Mathura
(b) Nashik
(c) Madurai
(d) Puri

93 Pandit Hari Prasad Chaurasia is known for:
(a) Maestro of Sitar
(b) Maestro of Sarod
(c) Maestro of Flute
(d) Maestro of Tabla
94. The National Anthem is written by:
(a) Ravindra Nath Tagore
(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sarojini Naidu

95. Vasco-de-gama was a native of;

96. Kolar the gold mining centre is in :
(d)West Bengal

97. A Rajya sabha Member enjoys tenures in Rajya Sabha for a period of:

(a) six years
(b)five years
(c) two years
(d)three years

98. Gautham Buddha was born at :

(a)Kapil vastu
(d)Patli putra

99. The science dealing with earth quake is called

100. By which article has the Indian Constitution conferred a special status to Jammu& Kashmir ?
(a) Article 340
(b)Article 350
(c)Article 360
(d)Article 370


India’s no.1 site for staff nurse question paper pdf download